The number of trials is not fixed
That is what separates it from the binomial. The sample space is countably infinite, which is why the axioms had to be stated in general.
P(X = k) = (1−p)^{k−1}p for the trial of the first success. Its mean is 1/p, its distribution is heavily skewed, and it is memoryless — which is the property people find hardest to accept.
Core ideas
The last distribution on this course, and the one whose mean is least representative of a typical outcome.
That is what separates it from the binomial. The sample space is countably infinite, which is why the axioms had to be stated in general.
A 1-in-6 event takes 6 attempts on average, and yet the single most likely outcome is the very first attempt.
Having failed 20 times does not improve the next attempt. The distribution of the remaining wait is unchanged.
The material
The distribution, its mean, memorylessness, and the coupon collector.
In independent trials with success probability p > 0, let X be the number of the trial on which the first success occurs. Then P(X = k) = (1−p)^{k−1}p for k = 1, 2, 3, …
The first success on trial k means k − 1 failures followed by a success. By independence that probability is (1−p)^{k−1}p.
These sum to 1 by the geometric series of “Induction with Sums and Products” in Induction and Recursion: Σ_{k≥1} (1−p)^{k−1}p = p/(1 − (1−p)) = 1.
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E[X] = 1/p and Var(X) = (1−p)/p².
Condition on the first trial. With probability p it succeeds and X = 1; with probability 1 − p it fails and the remaining wait has the same distribution as X. So E[X] = p·1 + (1−p)(1 + E[X]).
That sentence is a computation from the definition, not a new rule. For k ≥ 2, P(X = k) = (1−p)·P(X = k−1) — the first trial failed, then the wait started again — so E[X] = 1·p + Σ_{k≥2} k(1−p)P(X = k−1) = p + (1−p) Σ_{j≥1} (j+1)P(X = j) = p + (1−p)(E[X] + 1), the same equation.
Expanding: E[X] = 1 + (1−p)E[X], hence pE[X] = 1 and E[X] = 1/p.
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That conditioning argument is worth more than the formula. It avoids summing an infinite series entirely, and the same trick handles many waiting-time problems where no series is available.
P(X > m + n | X > m) = P(X > n) for all m, n ≥ 0. The geometric is the only discrete distribution with this property.
P(X > k) = (1−p)^k, since it means the first k trials all failed. Then P(X > m+n | X > m) = (1−p)^{m+n} / (1−p)^m = (1−p)^n = P(X > n).
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This is the gambler's fallacy stated correctly. A roulette wheel that has come up red twenty times is exactly as likely to come up red next spin; the past failures are already accounted for and change nothing. The distribution has no memory because the trials are independent, and independence is what the model assumed.
The distribution is strictly decreasing: the most likely single outcome is always k = 1, whatever p is. "On average 6" describes a long right tail balanced against a mode at 1, and quoting the mean alone hides both facts.
With n equally likely coupons, the expected number of purchases to collect all of them is n(1 + 1/2 + ⋯ + 1/n) ≈ n ln n + 0.577n.
Split the process into stages: stage i runs while you hold exactly i − 1 distinct coupons. The chance a purchase is new during that stage is (n − i + 1)/n, so the wait is geometric with that p and mean n/(n − i + 1).
By linearity of expectation the total is Σ_{i=1}^{n} n/(n−i+1) = n Σ_{j=1}^{n} 1/j.
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For n = 50 that is about 225 purchases, and the last coupon alone accounts for 50 of them on average. The final stages dominate, which is the structural reason collecting the last few of anything takes so long.
Interactive
Definition first, formula second
Method
Identify what is fixed: the trials, or the successes.
Fixed trials, count successes: binomial. Fixed target, count trials: geometric.
And derive it by conditioning on the first trial if you want to check it. The series is unnecessary.
The distribution is skewed enough that the mean alone misinforms. P(X > k) = (1−p)^k is the clean way to describe the tail.
The coupon collector is a sum of geometric waits, and linearity handles it without any joint distribution.
p = 1/6. How long until the first six?
Two thirds of the time you finish within the mean, and one time in nine you wait more than twice it. Both facts follow from P(X > k) = (5/6)^k, which is a better summary of this distribution than its expectation.
How many flips of a fair coin, on average, until two heads in a row? Let E be the answer and condition on how the sequence starts: a tail (1/2) wastes one flip, head-then-tail (1/4) wastes two, and head-head (1/4) finishes in two. Solve E = ½(E + 1) + ¼(E + 2) + ¼·2 and check that you get 6. No series was available, and the argument did not need one.
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